If X = Competent, and Y is < X, then Y by definition must be incompetent? right?
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If X = Competent, and Y is < X, then Y by definition must be incompetent? right?
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John's Musings 
No, this is incorrect.
OED says:
incompetent – 2. a. Of inadequate ability or fitness; not having the requisite capacity or qualification; incapable. Const. to, to do something. Rarely of things.
competent – 2. Suitable to a person’s rank or position; suitable or sufficient for comfortable living.
I’ve found that not only is Y < X, but A, B, and C are also < X… B, and C meet all criteria that could be used to measure against X. So it seems to me that X is improperly defined. Or another possibility is that the value of A, B, C, and Y has been incorrectly computed.
Yes, that would be a more correct statement.